It's a shame that it would hurt so much to have the web of your hand slammed by a hammer snapping back because otherwise we could test Officer McDonald's claim. We could try to reenact the altercation with punches being thrown, the ongoing struggle, then the one man drawing out his gun from his belt, and the other man, with no visual help to see what he's doing, getting the web of his hand into that small space right as the other guy was squeezing the trigger.
And you can't tell me that McDonald had such a thought in his mind to wedge his hand there. No, no, no, if anything, he was just trying to grab the gun, to take it away from Oswald. I'll never believe in a million years that he- or anyone- had such a thought to do what he claims he did.
To wedge your hand in the space of the hammer? No way. You would just try to get control of the gun, control where it's pointing, and then you would rip it out of the man's hand.
And how could McDonald have done what he claims and not report it at the time? He said nothing about it at the time. Why did he say immediately afterwards that Oswald's gun misfired? Why did he later change his story to the web wedging bull shit?
Oswald hadn't done anything. He didn't shoot Kennedy. He didn't shoot Tippit. He never even shot at Walker. He left work early that day without permission, and it was probably against the rules of the TSBD, but that wasn't a crime. There were no legal issues involved with that.
Was it illegal for him to take a loaded revolver into a theater in 1963? I do not know the answer to that question, and I have been trying to find out. Does anyone know? But, let's say it was illegal. How big a crime could it have been? It was probably just a misdemeanor- if anything. What could the punishment have been? Jail time? I doubt it. Not if it involved no act of violence and no intention of an act of violence or threat of violence. Surely, there was a long span of American history in which you could take a loaded gun with you anywhere.
So, what reason did Oswald have to shoot McDonald? That would have been an act of personal self-destruction. I think Oswald would have had to be insane to do such a thing. It makes no sense at all in light of the fact that Oswald hadn't done anything. But, even if he had, he was surrounded by cops, and even if he had succeeded at killing McDonald, there was no chance he was going to escape. It would have done him no good, only harm. So, why do it? Revenge? Hatred? But, Oswald didn't even know McDonald. I'm telling you, Oswald would have had to be stark raving out of his mind to shoot at McDonald, and I mean batshit crazy. And there is no evidence that Oswald was batshit crazy.