Oswald in the doorway: the blog of the Oswald Innocence Campaign, by Ralph Cinque

If Oswald knew that Malcolm Wallace, Frank Sturgis, and other individuals were conducting the JFK assassination, why would he say that a "militant revolutionary group" was doing it? It makes no sense.  

But, I will give Oliver Stone credit for one thing: he never said that Oswald sent the telex; he suggested that Oswald was the informant mentioned in the telex.

http://www.anyclip.com/movies/jfk/the-note-and-the-telex/

He came to that conclusion because he can read plain English. The recalled telex (it was just the recreation from memory by a night clerk) said that it went FBI headquarters in Washington DC to the field offices of the FBI. Since Oswald was in Dallas on November 17, he obviously did not send it and could not have sent it. 

Yet, there are quite a few people who continue to attribute the telex to Oswald as the sender- that he himself sent the telex- that very telex. 

But, another option is to take the liberty of assuming that Oswald must have sent a telex which preceded that telex. But why? Even if Oswald was the informant (and there is no evidence that he was; it's just an appealing idea) why assume he sent a telex to inform? What is the basis for it? The FBI had an in-house telex network, but Oswald didn't. And why assume he sent it on November 17? Supposedly, the telex arrived very early in the morning on November 17, at 12:45 AM Oswald's time. Wouldn't that mean he had to send it on the 16th or prior? 

But, what evidence is there that Oswald knew anything about any telex offices in Dallas? And if he did go to a telex office in Dallas on November 16 or before, wouldn't there be a record it? I know that they wouldn't allow anyone to send a telex without using his real name.  A telex is a legal document. 

And then when you add the fact that such paltry information as saying a "militant revolutionary group" was going to assassinate the President made it more like a guessing game, why would Oswald do that?  If Oswald had specific information, why wouldn't he provide it? He actually knew who! The individuals! He knew them! The very persons who were doing it! So, what's with "militant revolutionary group"? 

Did he want to inform the FBI but without ratting out the people who were doing it, the people he was working with? 

So, Oswald didn't want to rat them out before, and he certainly didn't rat them out after. Is anyone claiming that at some point after his arrest Oswald started naming names? That his profession of ignorance at the Midnight Press conference was all a lie? That he really knew everything, and he was just acting? 

It's terrible what was done to him in 1963, but it's also terrible what is being done to him today by his supposed friends.